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points by mahogany 1 day ago | 0 comments
As an example, what if your richer society was only 1% richer in the lowest decile but had massively more inequality compared to the poorer society, leading to a society where the rich controlled everything including land, and where the lowest decile had virtually a nonexistent chance to rise to a higher class? I’d take the poorer society if I’m not rich. Maybe I’d at least have a shot at property ownership.

It is not hard to think of how quickly nuance enters this picture. Much of the discussion here is about what exactly the inequality curve should look like. Shaving it down a bit is not the same as saying we should all be equal or whatever.

[–] therealdrag0 1 day ago
That’s not the prompt. He’s not talking about average wealth skewed by mega rich, but middle and lower deciles also being richer is what a richer society means.
[–] mahogany 19 hours ago
I’m not talking about average wealth. I’m talking about every decile being richer in absolute terms.

Wealth by decile in poor society

100, 101, …, 109

Wealth by decile in rich society

101, 102, …, 1000000000000

This is what I was describing. Maybe I’m confused. What am I missing from the prompt?

[–] therealdrag0 14 hours ago
Good point. Thanks for clarifying.
[–] azan_ 1 day ago
Exactly, thanks!